Beth’s Daily AP Calculus BC Practice
posted: 09-Mar-2026 & updated: 16-Mar-2026
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Think of it like a daily stretch before a game. The goal is exposure, not perfection.
The more times you bump into a concept, the more natural it becomes.
“The best way to understand a limit is to bump into it over and over —
not to stare at it once for three hours.” — Daddy
Table of Contents
New sessions are prepended at the top of each day’s section — most recent first.
March 2026
March 16, 2026
Part 1 — Limits: Sharp Tools
Same two roads — but some of today’s limits require three applications of L’Hôpital, or Taylor series that cut straight through. Always ask yourself: is there a slicker way than L’Hôpital?
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\arcsin x}{x}$ (Method B: which derivative? at which point?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\arctan(3x)}{\sin(2x)}$ (no L'Hôpital needed — divide top and bottom by $x$, reuse known limits)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{e^x - e^{-x}}{2x}$ (split into two fractions each $\to 1$, or: which derivative at $x=0$?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{x - \sin x}{x\tan x}$ (Taylor is far slicker than L'Hôpital here — try both)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\ln(1+x^2)}{1-\cos x}$ (write out the first nonzero Taylor term for each)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{(1+x)^{1/3}-1}{x}$ (Method B: derivative of $(1+x)^{1/3}$ at $x=0$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln x}{\sqrt{x}}$ (L'Hôpital once; or recall which always beats which at $\infty$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\cos x - 1 + \frac{x^2}{2}}{x^4}$ (write out the Taylor series of $\cos x$ to the $x^4$ term)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 2}\frac{x^2-4}{x^3-8}$ (factor both — and recognise it as a derivative definition!)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}$ (substitute $u=x^2$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x^2+\sin x}{x^2+\cos x}$ (divide through by $x^2$; what happens to $\sin x/x^2$ and $\cos x/x^2$?)
▶ Answers — Part 1
-
$1$
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=\arcsin x$; $f'(x)=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$, so $f'(0)=1$. ✓
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{1/\sqrt{1-x^2}}{1}\big|_{x=0}=1$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{3}{2}$
Divide top and bottom by $x$: $\displaystyle\frac{\arctan(3x)/x}{\sin(2x)/x}\to\frac{3}{2}$, using $\arctan(u)/u\to 1$ and $\sin(u)/u\to 1$ with $u=3x$ and $u=2x$. ✓ -
$1$
Split: $\displaystyle\frac{e^x-e^{-x}}{2x}=\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{e^x-1}{x}+\frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1-e^{-x}}{x}\to\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}=1$.
(For the second fraction: let $u=-x$, then $\frac{1-e^{-x}}{x}=\frac{e^u-1}{u}\to 1$.) ✓
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=\sinh x=\frac{e^x-e^{-x}}{2}$; $f'(0)=\cosh(0)=1$. ✓ -
$0$
Taylor (slicker): $\sin x = x-\frac{x^3}{6}+\cdots$; so $x-\sin x\approx\frac{x^3}{6}$. Also $\tan x\approx x$, so $x\tan x\approx x^2$. Ratio $\approx\frac{x^3/6}{x^2}=\frac{x}{6}\to 0$. ✓
L'Hôpital: Applying it three times to $\frac{x-\sin x}{x\tan x}$ is messy — Taylor is the right tool here. -
$2$
Taylor: $\ln(1+x^2)\approx x^2$ and $1-\cos x\approx\dfrac{x^2}{2}$. Ratio $\to\dfrac{x^2}{x^2/2}=2$. ✓
Both numerator and denominator have their first nonzero term at order $x^2$ — a clean cancellation. -
$\dfrac{1}{3}$
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=(1+x)^{1/3}$; $f'(x)=\frac{1}{3}(1+x)^{-2/3}$, so $f'(0)=\frac{1}{3}$. ✓
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{(1/3)(1+x)^{-2/3}}{1}\big|_{x=0}=\frac{1}{3}$. ✓ -
$0$
L'Hôpital ($\frac{\infty}{\infty}$): $\displaystyle\frac{1/x}{1/(2\sqrt{x})}=\frac{2}{\sqrt{x}}\to 0$. ✓
General principle: $\ln x$ grows slower than any positive power of $x$ as $x\to\infty$. -
$\dfrac{1}{24}$
Taylor: $\cos x = 1 - \dfrac{x^2}{2} + \dfrac{x^4}{24} - \cdots$; so $\cos x - 1 + \dfrac{x^2}{2} = \dfrac{x^4}{24}+\cdots$. Divide by $x^4$: limit $=\dfrac{1}{24}$. ✓
Three applications of L'Hôpital would also work, but Taylor is instant. -
$\dfrac{1}{3}$
Direct factor: $x^2-4=(x-2)(x+2)$; $x^3-8=(x-2)(x^2+2x+4)$. Cancel $(x-2)$: $\displaystyle\frac{x+2}{x^2+2x+4}\big|_{x=2}=\frac{4}{12}=\frac{1}{3}$. ✓
Method B: $\displaystyle\frac{x^2-4}{x^3-8}=\frac{x^2-2^2}{x^3-2^3}\to\frac{2\cdot 2}{3\cdot 2^2}=\frac{4}{12}=\frac{1}{3}$ (ratio of derivatives of numerator and denominator at $x=2$). ✓ -
$1$
Let $u=x^2$; as $x\to 0$, $u\to 0$: $\displaystyle\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}=\frac{\sin u}{u}\to 1$. ✓
This is the third disguise of $\frac{\sin\theta}{\theta}\to 1$ — recognise the pattern! -
$1$
Divide numerator and denominator by $x^2$: $\displaystyle\frac{1+\sin x/x^2}{1+\cos x/x^2}$. Since $|\sin x|\leq 1$ and $|\cos x|\leq 1$, both $\sin x/x^2\to 0$ and $\cos x/x^2\to 0$. Limit $=\frac{1}{1}=1$. ✓
Part 2 — Indeterminate Forms: $0^0$, $\infty^0$, $1^\infty$
The universal recipe: to handle $[f(x)]^{g(x)}$ in indeterminate form, let $L$ be the limit, take $\ln L = \lim g(x)\cdot\ln f(x)$, evaluate the resulting $0\cdot\infty$ form (usually by L’Hôpital), then set $L=e^{\ln L}$.
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x\!\left(\sqrt{1+\tfrac{1}{x}}-1\right)$ (multiply by the conjugate, or Taylor: $\sqrt{1+u}\approx 1+\frac{u}{2}$ for small $u$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^{\sin x}$ ($0^0$ form)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\frac{x+3}{x-1}\right)^{\!x}$ ($1^\infty$ form)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} n^{1/n}$ ($\infty^0$ form)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+}(\cos x)^{1/x^2}$ ($1^\infty$ form — answer involves $e$!)
▶ Answers — Part 2
-
$\dfrac{1}{2}$
Taylor: $\sqrt{1+u}\approx 1+\frac{u}{2}$ for small $u$; with $u=1/x$: $x\!\left(1+\frac{1}{2x}+\cdots-1\right)=x\cdot\frac{1}{2x}+\cdots\to\frac{1}{2}$. ✓
Conjugate: Multiply by $\frac{\sqrt{1+1/x}+1}{\sqrt{1+1/x}+1}$: $\displaystyle\frac{x\cdot(1/x)}{\sqrt{1+1/x}+1}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+1/x}+1}\to\frac{1}{2}$. ✓ -
$1$
$\ln L = \lim_{x\to 0^+}\sin x\cdot\ln x$. Since $\sin x\approx x$ near $0$: $\sin x\cdot\ln x\approx x\ln x\to 0$ (the Mar 15 Part 1 #7 result). So $\ln L=0$, $L=e^0=1$. ✓
This is the $0^0$ form — and the answer is $1$, not $0$ or undefined. -
$e^4$
$\ln L=\lim x\ln\!\left(1+\dfrac{4}{x-1}\right)\approx x\cdot\dfrac{4}{x-1}\to 4$. So $L=e^4$. ✓
More carefully: let $u=\frac{4}{x-1}\to 0^+$; $\frac{\ln(1+u)}{u/x}\cdot\frac{1}{1}\to 1\cdot\lim\frac{4x}{x-1}=4$. ✓ -
$1$
$\ln L=\lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{\ln n}{n}$. L'Hôpital: $\displaystyle\frac{1/n}{1}\to 0$. So $\ln L=0$, $L=e^0=1$. ✓
Intuition: the exponent $\frac{1}{n}\to 0$ "squashes" even $n\to\infty$ down to $1$. -
$e^{-1/2} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{e}}$
$\ln L=\lim_{x\to 0^+}\dfrac{\ln\cos x}{x^2}$. Taylor: $\cos x\approx 1-\frac{x^2}{2}+\cdots$, so $\ln\cos x\approx\ln\!\left(1-\frac{x^2}{2}\right)\approx-\frac{x^2}{2}$. Thus $\dfrac{\ln\cos x}{x^2}\to-\dfrac{1}{2}$. So $L=e^{-1/2}$. ✓
L'Hôpital check: $\displaystyle\frac{-\sin x/\cos x}{2x}=\frac{-\tan x}{2x}\to-\frac{1}{2}$. ✓
Part 3 — Series: Power Series and More Tests
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{n\cdot 2^n}$ (ratio test for convergence; exact value connects to a famous logarithm)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n\,\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}$ (recognise this as the Maclaurin series for a trig function evaluated at a specific point)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n(n+1)(n+2)}$ (partial fractions — this telescopes, but the fractions are trickier)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n(n+1)}{3^n}$ (ratio test for convergence; exact value is a beautiful bonus)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2\ln n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n^3}{4^n}$ (ratio test; exact value optional — needs triple differentiation of geometric series)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2n}}{n!}$ — find the radius of convergence $R$, and identify the closed-form sum
▶ Answers — Part 3
-
Absolutely converges $= \ln\!\dfrac{2}{3}$
Ratio test on $|a_n|$: $\dfrac{n}{2(n+1)}\to\dfrac{1}{2}<1$. Absolutely convergent. ✓
Exact value: Recall $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{n}x^n=-\ln(1+x)$ for $|x|\leq 1$. At $x=\frac{1}{2}$: $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{n\cdot 2^n}=-\ln\!\frac{3}{2}=\ln\!\frac{2}{3}$. ✓ -
$-1$
The Maclaurin series for $\cos\theta = \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n\theta^{2n}}{(2n)!}$. Here $\theta=\pi$: $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n\pi^{2n}}{(2n)!}=\cos\pi=-1$. ✓
Recognising Taylor series in disguise is one of the most powerful skills on the AP exam! -
Converges $= \dfrac{1}{4}$
Partial fractions: $\dfrac{1}{n(n+1)(n+2)}=\dfrac{1}{2}\!\left(\dfrac{1}{n(n+1)}-\dfrac{1}{(n+1)(n+2)}\right)$.
Telescoping: all middle terms cancel, leaving $\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\dfrac{1}{1\cdot 2}=\dfrac{1}{4}$. ✓ -
Converges $= \dfrac{9}{4}$
Ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)/3^{n+1}}{n(n+1)/3^n}=\dfrac{n+2}{3n}\to\dfrac{1}{3}<1$. ✓
Exact value (bonus): Using $\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n=\frac{1}{1-x}$, differentiate twice and multiply carefully to get $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty n(n+1)x^n=\frac{2x}{(1-x)^3}$. At $x=\frac{1}{3}$: $\dfrac{2/3}{(2/3)^3}=\dfrac{2/3}{8/27}=\dfrac{9}{4}$. ✓ -
Converges
Comparison: $\dfrac{1}{n^2\ln n}<\dfrac{1}{n^2}$ for all $n\geq 2$. Since $\displaystyle\sum\frac{1}{n^2}$ converges ($p=2$), so does this by comparison. ✓
(No simple closed form exists.) -
Converges $= \dfrac{44}{27}$
Ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)^3/4^{n+1}}{n^3/4^n}=\dfrac{1}{4}\!\left(\dfrac{n+1}{n}\right)^3\to\dfrac{1}{4}<1$. ✓
Exact value (bonus): Triple differentiation of $\sum x^n$ gives $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty n^3 x^n=\frac{x(1+4x+x^2)}{(1-x)^4}$. At $x=\frac{1}{4}$: $\dfrac{(1/4)(1+1+1/16)}{(3/4)^4}=\dfrac{(1/4)(33/16)}{81/256}=\dfrac{33}{64}\cdot\dfrac{256}{81}=\dfrac{44}{27}$. ✓ -
$R = \infty$; sum $= e^{x^2}$
Ratio test: $\left|\dfrac{x^{2(n+1)}/(n+1)!}{x^{2n}/n!}\right|=\dfrac{x^2}{n+1}\to 0$ for any fixed $x$. So $R=\infty$: converges for all $x$. ✓
Closed form: $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^{2n}}{n!}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(x^2)^n}{n!}=e^{x^2}$. ✓
This is one of the most useful functions in probability theory (related to the Gaussian)!
Part 4 — Integration by Parts: Revisit & Extend
The “solve for $I$” trick from Mar 15 appears again in #1 — the companion problem to $\int e^x\sin x\,dx$. Problems #4 and #5 introduce inverse trig antiderivatives via parts.
- $\displaystyle\int e^{-x}\cos x\,dx$ ★ (parts twice — the integral comes back again! Use the same solve-for-$I$ trick)
- $\displaystyle\int x^2\ln x\,dx$ ($u=\ln x$, $dv=x^2\,dx$ — LIATE says $\ln x$ comes first)
- $\displaystyle\int \arcsin x\,dx$ (sneaky: $u=\arcsin x$, $dv=dx$; you will need $\int\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\,dx$ — try $w=1-x^2$)
- $\displaystyle\int x\ln(x+1)\,dx$ ($u=\ln(x+1)$, $dv=x\,dx$; then split $\frac{x^2}{x+1}=x-1+\frac{1}{x+1}$)
- $\displaystyle\int \ln^2 x\,dx$ ($u=\ln^2 x$, $dv=dx$; the remaining integral is the Mar 11 result $\int\ln x\,dx$)
▶ Answers — Part 4
-
$\dfrac{e^{-x}(\sin x - \cos x)}{2} + C$
Let $I=\displaystyle\int e^{-x}\cos x\,dx$.
First parts: $u=\cos x$, $dv=e^{-x}dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=-\sin x\,dx$, $v=-e^{-x}$:
$I = -e^{-x}\cos x - \displaystyle\int e^{-x}\sin x\,dx$.
Second parts: $u=\sin x$, $dv=e^{-x}dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $v=-e^{-x}$:
$\displaystyle\int e^{-x}\sin x\,dx = -e^{-x}\sin x + \int e^{-x}\cos x\,dx = -e^{-x}\sin x + I$.
So: $I=-e^{-x}\cos x-(-e^{-x}\sin x+I)=-e^{-x}\cos x+e^{-x}\sin x-I$.
$2I=e^{-x}(\sin x-\cos x)$ $\Rightarrow$ $\boxed{I=\dfrac{e^{-x}(\sin x-\cos x)}{2}+C}$. ✓
Compare with Mar 15 #3: same trick, $e^{-x}$ instead of $e^x$ — the sign inside flips! -
$\dfrac{x^3}{3}\ln x - \dfrac{x^3}{9} + C$
$u=\ln x$, $dv=x^2\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\frac{1}{x}dx$, $v=\frac{x^3}{3}$.
$\displaystyle\int x^2\ln x\,dx=\frac{x^3}{3}\ln x-\int\frac{x^2}{3}\,dx=\frac{x^3}{3}\ln x-\frac{x^3}{9}+C$. ✓ -
$x\arcsin x + \sqrt{1-x^2} + C$
$u=\arcsin x$, $dv=dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dx$, $v=x$.
$\displaystyle\int\arcsin x\,dx=x\arcsin x-\int\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\,dx$.
For the remaining integral: let $w=1-x^2$, $dw=-2x\,dx$:
$\displaystyle\int\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\,dx=-\frac{1}{2}\int w^{-1/2}\,dw=-\sqrt{1-x^2}$.
Total: $x\arcsin x+\sqrt{1-x^2}+C$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{x^2-1}{2}\ln(x+1) - \dfrac{x^2}{4} + \dfrac{x}{2} + C$
$u=\ln(x+1)$, $dv=x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\frac{1}{x+1}dx$, $v=\frac{x^2}{2}$.
$\displaystyle\int x\ln(x+1)\,dx=\frac{x^2}{2}\ln(x+1)-\int\frac{x^2}{2(x+1)}\,dx$.
Split: $\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}=x-1+\dfrac{1}{x+1}$.
$\displaystyle\int\frac{x^2}{2(x+1)}\,dx=\frac{x^2}{4}-\frac{x}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\ln(x+1)+C$.
Total: $\dfrac{x^2}{2}\ln(x+1)-\dfrac{x^2}{4}+\dfrac{x}{2}-\dfrac{1}{2}\ln(x+1)+C=\dfrac{x^2-1}{2}\ln(x+1)-\dfrac{x^2}{4}+\dfrac{x}{2}+C$. ✓ -
$x\ln^2 x - 2x\ln x + 2x + C$
$u=\ln^2 x$, $dv=dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\frac{2\ln x}{x}dx$, $v=x$.
$\displaystyle\int\ln^2 x\,dx=x\ln^2 x-2\int\ln x\,dx$.
Use the Mar 11 result $\displaystyle\int\ln x\,dx=x\ln x-x$:
$=x\ln^2 x-2(x\ln x-x)+C=x\ln^2 x-2x\ln x+2x+C$. ✓
Part 5 — FTC: Both Parts, Full Power
Today we use both parts of the Fundamental Theorem:
\[\underbrace{\frac{d}{dx}\int_a^{g(x)} f(t)\,dt = f\!\bigl(g(x)\bigr)\cdot g'(x)}_{\textbf{FTC Part 1}} \qquad\qquad \underbrace{\int_a^b f(x)\,dx = F(b)-F(a)}_{\textbf{FTC Part 2}}\]- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_1^{x^3}\ln t\,dt$
- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_{\cos x}^{\sin x} e^{t^2}\,dt$ (both limits depend on $x$ — split at any constant, then apply the chain-rule version to each)
- Let $F(x)=\displaystyle\int_0^x t\sin t\,dt$. Find $F'(x)$ and $F''(x)$. (FTC Part 1 gives $F'$ directly; differentiate again with the product rule)
- Evaluate: $\displaystyle\int_0^1 xe^x\,dx$ (antiderivative from Mar 11 Part 4 #1, then apply FTC Part 2)
- Evaluate: $\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2} x\cos x\,dx$ (antiderivative from Mar 15 Part 4 #1 with $dv=\cos x\,dx$, then FTC Part 2)
- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\!\left[x\int_0^x \sin t\,dt\right]$ (product rule first; FTC Part 1 handles the derivative of the integral piece; FTC Part 2 evaluates the other)
▶ Answers — Part 5
-
$9x^2\ln x$
FTC Part 1 + chain rule: $f(t)=\ln t$, $g(x)=x^3$, $g'(x)=3x^2$.
$= \ln(x^3)\cdot 3x^2 = 3\ln x\cdot 3x^2 = 9x^2\ln x$. ✓ -
$e^{\sin^2 x}\cos x + e^{\cos^2 x}\sin x$
Split at $0$: $\displaystyle\int_{\cos x}^{\sin x}=\int_0^{\sin x}-\int_0^{\cos x}$.
Differentiate each with chain rule:
$\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{\sin x}e^{t^2}\,dt = e^{\sin^2 x}\cdot\cos x$,
$\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{\cos x}e^{t^2}\,dt = e^{\cos^2 x}\cdot(-\sin x)$.
Total: $e^{\sin^2 x}\cos x + e^{\cos^2 x}\sin x$. ✓ -
$F'(x) = x\sin x$ ; $F''(x) = \sin x + x\cos x$
$F'(x)$: FTC Part 1 directly — the integrand evaluated at the upper limit: $F'(x)=x\sin x$. ✓
$F''(x)$: Differentiate $x\sin x$ with the product rule: $F''(x)=\sin x+x\cos x$. ✓ -
$1$
Antiderivative from Mar 11 Part 4 #1: $\displaystyle\int xe^x\,dx = e^x(x-1)+C$.
FTC Part 2: $\Bigl[e^x(x-1)\Bigr]_0^1 = e^1(1-1)-e^0(0-1) = 0-(-1) = 1$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{\pi}{2}-1$
IBP: $u=x$, $dv=\cos x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $v=\sin x$: antiderivative $= x\sin x+\cos x$.
FTC Part 2: $\Bigl[x\sin x+\cos x\Bigr]_0^{\pi/2} = \Bigl(\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot 1+0\Bigr)-(0\cdot 0+1) = \frac{\pi}{2}-1$. ✓ -
$1 - \cos x + x\sin x$
Product rule: $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\!\left[x\int_0^x\sin t\,dt\right]=\int_0^x\sin t\,dt + x\cdot\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^x\sin t\,dt$.
FTC Part 1: $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^x\sin t\,dt=\sin x$.
FTC Part 2: $\displaystyle\int_0^x\sin t\,dt=\bigl[-\cos t\bigr]_0^x=1-\cos x$.
Total: $(1-\cos x)+x\sin x$. ✓
Part 6 — Volumes: Choose Your Weapon
For each problem, set up both methods and verify they agree. Pay attention to which method wins — and why!
Problem 1.
The region bounded by $y=\sin x$, $y=0$, and $x\in[0,\pi]$ is rotated around the $x$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 1
🔍 Disc wins decisively — one integral, one trig identity, done. Shell requires inverting a trig function into two branches and then a non-trivial IBP. When the axis of rotation matches your integration variable, disc is almost always preferable.
Problem 2.
The region bounded by $y=x^3$, $y=0$, and $x=2$ is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 2
🔍 Shell wins again for $y$-axis rotation with the curve given in $x$ — one monomial integral. Washer required inverting $y=x^3$ and computing a fractional power $y^{2/3}$ — doable, but shell is cleaner.
Problem 3.
The region bounded by $y = 4 - x^2$ and $y = x^2$ (they meet at $x = \pm\sqrt{2}$; use $x \geq 0$) is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 3
🔍 Shell was simpler here — one polynomial integral. The disc approach required recognising the two $y$-regions carefully (which parabola is the binding constraint changes at $y=2$) and splitting into two integrals. Both are clean, but shell edges out the win.
Big takeaway from Part 6 — Problems 1–3
Problem 1 ($\sin x$, $x$-axis): disc = one integral with a trig identity; shell = messy inversion into two branches. Disc wins.
Problem 2 ($x^3$, $y$-axis): shell = one monomial; washer = fractional power. Shell wins.
Problem 3 ($4-x^2$ vs $x^2$, $y$-axis): shell = one polynomial; disc = two sub-intervals (both clean). Shell wins on elegance.
The pattern is now clear: match your integration variable to the axis of rotation, and the hard method almost always has a sting in the tail.
Problem 4.
The region bounded by $y = \sqrt{x}$ and $y = x^2$ (they meet at $(0,0)$ and $(1,1)$) is rotated around the $x$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 4
🔍 Washer is cleaner here — integrand collapses to $x - x^4$, two power-rule terms. Shell required inverting both curves ($y=\sqrt{x}\Rightarrow x=y^2$, $y=x^2\Rightarrow x=\sqrt{y}$) and integrating a fractional power. Good example of washer winning even between two curves!
Problem 5.
The region bounded by $y = \dfrac{1}{x}$, $x = 1$, $x = e$, and $y = 0$ is rotated around the $x$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 5
🔍 Disc wins completely — one clean integral $\pi\int_1^e x^{-2}dx$, antiderivative is $-x^{-1}$, done in seconds. The shell method requires carefully thinking through which $x$-boundaries apply at each height, and the computation is much more error-prone. Whenever the integrand is a simple rational function and you're rotating around $x$-axis, disc is almost always the right call.
⚠️ Important lesson: Shell method can fail or become much harder when the boundary structure changes across the height of the region. Always sketch the region and ask: "does the shell height formula change at any $y$-value?" Here it does not — but the limits of integration require care. When in doubt, disc/washer on $x$-axis rotations.
Problem 6.
The region bounded by $y = \sin x$, $y = 0$, and $x\in[0,\pi]$ is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis. (Same region as Problem 1 — different axis!)
▶ Solution — Problem 6
🔍 Shell wins easily — $\int x\sin x\,dx$ is one integration by parts, a standard technique from today's Part 4. Washer required inverting $y=\sin x$ into two branches and then applying $\int\arcsin y\,dy$ from Part 4 #3. Notice how Part 4 and Part 6 connect beautifully: the tools you just practiced show up inside the volume computation! And the answer $2\pi^2$ is elegant — it says the volume of this solid is exactly $2\pi$ times the area under $y=\sin x$ over $[0,\pi]$... which equals $2\cdot 2\pi = 4\pi$... wait, $2\pi\cdot 2 = 4\pi\neq 2\pi^2$. The formula $V=2\pi\bar{x}\cdot A$ (Pappus' theorem) actually confirms: $\bar{x}=\pi/2$ by symmetry, $A=2$, so $V=2\pi\cdot\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot 2=2\pi^2$. ✓ Stunning!
Connecting the dots — Part 4 meets Part 6
Problem 6 used $\displaystyle\int x\sin x\,dx$ (shell, $u=x$, $dv=\sin x\,dx$) — the same IBP move from Part 4 #2.
The washer method for Problem 6 used $\displaystyle\int\arcsin y\,dy$ — the result from Part 4 #3 today.
Problem 5’s disc method turned $\displaystyle\int 1/x^2\,dx$ into $[-1/x]$ in one step — the cleanest antiderivative in calculus.
The whole day’s topics are woven together. This is what real calculus looks like — every tool feeds into every other.
March 15, 2026
Part 1 — Limits: Sharper Tools
Same two methods — but the forms are trickier this time. Several need L’Hôpital’s rule applied more than once, or a Taylor series shortcut that beats L’Hôpital cold.
- Method A – L’Hôpital’s rule
- Method B – Derivative definition
or Taylor series
- $\displaystyle\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{\cos\!\left(\tfrac{\pi}{3}+h\right)-\tfrac{1}{2}}{h}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{e^{2x}-1-2x}{x^2}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{1-\cos 2x}{x^2}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x - x}{x^3}$ (L'Hôpital three times, or Taylor — which is slicker?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\tan x - x}{x^3}$ (similar to #4, but answer is different — compare!)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{x^n - 1}{x-1}$ (for general $n$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x\ln x$ (rewrite as $\frac{\ln x}{1/x}$ for L'Hôpital)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{a}{x}\right)^{\!x}$ (for general constant $a$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x\sin\frac{1}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\pi}\frac{\sin x}{\pi - x}$
▶ Answers — Part 1
-
$-\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
Method B: $f'(\pi/3)$ for $f(x)=\cos x$; $f'(x)=-\sin x$, so $f'(\pi/3)=-\sin(\pi/3)=-\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{-\sin(\pi/3+h)}{1}\big|_{h=0}=-\sin(\pi/3)=-\dfrac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$. ✓ -
$2$
Taylor (slicker): $e^{2x}=1+2x+\frac{(2x)^2}{2}+\cdots = 1+2x+2x^2+\cdots$; so $e^{2x}-1-2x=2x^2+\cdots$; divide by $x^2$: limit $=2$.
L'Hôpital twice: $\displaystyle\frac{2e^{2x}-2}{2x}\xrightarrow{\text{L'H}}\frac{4e^{2x}}{2}\big|_{x=0}=2$. ✓ -
$2$
Identity: $1-\cos 2x = 2\sin^2 x$, so $\displaystyle\frac{1-\cos 2x}{x^2}=2\!\left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^{\!2}\to 2\cdot 1^2=2$. ✓
L'Hôpital twice: $\displaystyle\frac{2\sin 2x}{2x}\xrightarrow{\text{L'H}}\frac{4\cos 2x}{2}\big|_{x=0}=2$. ✓ -
$-\dfrac{1}{6}$
Taylor (much slicker!): $\sin x = x - \dfrac{x^3}{6}+\cdots$; so $\sin x - x = -\dfrac{x^3}{6}+\cdots$; divide by $x^3$: limit $=-\dfrac{1}{6}$.
L'Hôpital three times: $\displaystyle\frac{\cos x-1}{3x^2}\to\frac{-\sin x}{6x}\to\frac{-\cos x}{6}\big|_{x=0}=-\frac{1}{6}$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{3}$
Taylor: $\tan x = x + \dfrac{x^3}{3}+\cdots$; so $\tan x - x = \dfrac{x^3}{3}+\cdots$; divide by $x^3$: limit $=\dfrac{1}{3}$.
Compare with #4: $\tan x$ grows faster than $\sin x$ near $0$, so $\frac{1}{3}>-\frac{1}{6}$. Makes sense! ✓ -
$n$
Method B: $f'(1)$ for $f(x)=x^n$; $f'(x)=nx^{n-1}$, so $f'(1)=n$. ✓
Direct factor: $x^n-1=(x-1)(x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}+\cdots+1)$; cancel $(x-1)$; at $x=1$: sum of $n$ ones $= n$. ✓ -
$0$
Rewrite: $x\ln x = \dfrac{\ln x}{1/x}$. L'Hôpital ($\frac{-\infty}{\infty}$): $\displaystyle\frac{1/x}{-1/x^2}=-x\to 0$. ✓
Pattern: $x^p\ln x\to 0$ as $x\to 0^+$ for any $p>0$. Power always beats $\ln$. -
$1$
Write $x^x = e^{x\ln x}$. From #7: $x\ln x\to 0$ as $x\to 0^+$. So $x^x = e^{x\ln x}\to e^0=1$. ✓
This is the classic $0^0$ indeterminate form — the answer is $1$, not $0$ or undefined! -
$e^a$
$\displaystyle\left(1+\frac{a}{x}\right)^{\!x}=\left(\!\left(1+\frac{a}{x}\right)^{\!x/a}\right)^{\!a}\to (e)^a = e^a$.
This is the master formula: $e^x = \displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\!\left(1+\frac{x}{n}\right)^n$. Every compound-interest variant follows from it. ✓ -
$1$
Let $u=1/x$; as $x\to\infty$, $u\to 0^+$: $\displaystyle x\sin\frac{1}{x}=\frac{\sin u}{u}\to 1$. ✓
(You saw this as Mar 10 #1 with a different disguise — same $\frac{\sin\theta}{\theta}\to 1$ core.) -
$1$
Let $u=\pi-x$; as $x\to\pi$, $u\to 0$: $\displaystyle\frac{\sin x}{\pi-x}=\frac{\sin(\pi-u)}{u}=\frac{\sin u}{u}\to 1$. ✓
(Used $\sin(\pi-u)=\sin u$.)
Method B: Note $\displaystyle\frac{\sin x-\sin\pi}{\pi-x}=-\frac{\sin x-0}{x-\pi}\to -f'(\pi)=-\cos\pi=1$. ✓
Part 2 — The Trickiest Infinity Forms: Logarithm to the Rescue
These are all indeterminate forms that don’t yield to direct substitution — $1^\infty$, $0^0$, $\infty^0$, $0\cdot\infty$. The key trick: take the natural log first, evaluate the resulting limit, then exponentiate.
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{1/x}$ ($\infty^0$ form — let $L$ be the limit, find $\ln L$ first)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^{\!x^2}$ (let $u=x^2$, then recognise the $e$ definition)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\frac{x}{x+1}\right)^{\!x}$ (rewrite as $\left(1-\frac{1}{x+1}\right)^x$ and use the master formula from Part 1 #9)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0}\bigl(1+\sin x\bigr)^{1/x}$ ($1^\infty$ form — take $\ln$, L'Hôpital, then exponentiate)
▶ Answers — Part 2
-
$1$
Let $L=\lim x^{1/x}$. Then $\ln L = \lim\dfrac{\ln x}{x}$. L'Hôpital: $\displaystyle\frac{1/x}{1}\to 0$. So $\ln L=0$, $L=e^0=1$. ✓
Intuition: as $x\to\infty$, the exponent $1/x\to 0$ "squashes" $x$ down to $1$. -
$e$
Let $u=x^2$; as $x\to\infty$, $u\to\infty$: $\displaystyle\left(1+\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^{x^2}=\left(1+\frac{1}{u}\right)^u\to e$. ✓
The substitution reveals the hidden $e$ definition in disguise. -
$\dfrac{1}{e}$
$\ln L = \lim x\ln\!\left(\dfrac{x}{x+1}\right) = \lim x\ln\!\left(1-\dfrac{1}{x+1}\right)$.
Let $u=\frac{1}{x+1}\to 0^+$: $= \lim\dfrac{\ln(1-u)}{u}\cdot\dfrac{x}{x+1}\cdot(x+1)$... more directly:
$x\ln\!\left(1-\frac{1}{x+1}\right)\approx x\cdot\left(-\frac{1}{x+1}\right)\to -1$. So $L=e^{-1}=\dfrac{1}{e}$. ✓ -
$e$
$\ln L = \lim_{x\to 0}\dfrac{\ln(1+\sin x)}{x}$. This is $\frac{0}{0}$; L'Hôpital: $\displaystyle\frac{\cos x/(1+\sin x)}{1}\big|_{x=0}=1$.
Or: $\ln(1+\sin x)/x\approx \sin x/x\to 1$ (since $\ln(1+u)\approx u$). So $L=e^1=e$. ✓
Part 3 — Series: Harder Tests & First Taste of Power Series
The last two problems introduce radius of convergence — a new idea! A power series $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n x^n$ converges for $|x|<R$ and diverges for $|x|>R$, where $\displaystyle R = \lim_{n\to\infty}\left|\frac{a_n}{a_{n+1}}\right|$ (if this limit exists).
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{3^n}$ (ratio test for convergence; exact value is a beautiful bonus)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2-1}$ (partial fractions — this one telescopes, just like Mar 9!)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{n^2}{n^2+1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{n!}{(2n)!}$ (ratio test — the factorial growth may surprise you)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n^2}{\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)^n}$ (ratio test for convergence; exact value optional)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^{\!n}$ — find the radius of convergence $R$ (recognise this as a geometric series)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n\,x^n$ — find the radius of convergence $R$ (ratio test: ratio of consecutive terms involves $x$)
▶ Answers — Part 3
-
Converges $= \dfrac{3}{4}$
Ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)/3^{n+1}}{n/3^n}=\dfrac{n+1}{3n}\to\dfrac{1}{3}<1$. ✓
Exact value (bonus): Differentiate $\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n=\frac{1}{1-x}$ to get $\sum nx^{n-1}=\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}$; multiply by $x$: $\sum nx^n=\frac{x}{(1-x)^2}$. At $x=\frac{1}{3}$: $\dfrac{1/3}{(2/3)^2}=\dfrac{1/3}{4/9}=\dfrac{3}{4}$. ✓ -
Converges $= \dfrac{3}{4}$
Partial fractions: $\dfrac{1}{n^2-1}=\dfrac{1}{(n-1)(n+1)}=\dfrac{1}{2}\!\left(\dfrac{1}{n-1}-\dfrac{1}{n+1}\right)$.
Telescoping (write out a few terms!): all but $\frac{1}{2}\!\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{3}{4}$ cancel. ✓
Coincidence alert: the exact value matches #1! -
Diverges
Check the necessary condition first: $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n^2}{n^2+1}=1\neq 0$.
The terms do not approach $0$, so the series cannot converge — divergence test. No need for alternating series test! ✓ -
Converges
Ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)!/(2n+2)!}{n!/(2n)!}=\dfrac{n+1}{(2n+2)(2n+1)}=\dfrac{1}{2(2n+1)}\to 0 < 1$. ✓
Factorials in the denominator growing as $(2n)!$ crush the numerator $n!$ — ratio $\to 0$ is a strong signal! -
Converges
Ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)^2/(3/2)^{n+1}}{n^2/(3/2)^n}=\dfrac{(n+1)^2}{n^2}\cdot\dfrac{2}{3}\to 1\cdot\dfrac{2}{3}<1$. ✓
Exact value (bonus): $\sum n^2 x^n = \dfrac{x(1+x)}{(1-x)^3}$. At $x=\frac{2}{3}$: $\dfrac{(2/3)(5/3)}{(1/3)^3}=\dfrac{10/9}{1/27}=30$. ✓ -
$R = 2$
This is a geometric series with ratio $r=x/2$. It converges iff $|x/2|<1$, i.e., $|x|<2$. So $R=2$. ✓
When $|x|<2$: sum $= \dfrac{1}{1-x/2} = \dfrac{2}{2-x}$. ✓ -
$R = 1$
Ratio test on the power series: $\left|\dfrac{(n+1)x^{n+1}}{nx^n}\right|=\dfrac{n+1}{n}|x|\to |x|$.
Converges when $|x|<1$, diverges when $|x|>1$. So $R=1$. ✓
Bonus: Inside its radius, $\sum_{n=1}^\infty nx^n = \dfrac{x}{(1-x)^2}$ — this is the derivative trick from #1!
Part 4 — Integration by Parts: The “Solve for $I$” Trick
The first two problems are practice. Problem 3 is the highlight — a brand new technique where the integral reappears on the right side and you solve algebraically for $I$! ★
- $\displaystyle\int x\sin(2x)\,dx$ ($u=x$, $dv=\sin(2x)\,dx$)
- $\displaystyle\int x^2\cos x\,dx$ (parts twice; reuse the result from Mar 11 #2)
- $\displaystyle\int e^x \sin x\,dx$ ★ (parts twice — the original integral comes back! Set $I = \int e^x\sin x\,dx$ and solve for $I$.)
- $\displaystyle\int \arctan x\,dx$ (sneaky: $u=\arctan x$, $dv=dx$; you'll need $\int\frac{x}{1+x^2}\,dx$)
- $\displaystyle\int x\arctan x\,dx$ ($u=\arctan x$, $dv=x\,dx$; then split $\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}=1-\frac{1}{1+x^2}$)
▶ Answers — Part 4
-
$-\dfrac{x\cos(2x)}{2} + \dfrac{\sin(2x)}{4} + C$
$u=x$, $dv=\sin(2x)\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=dx$, $v=-\dfrac{\cos(2x)}{2}$.
$\displaystyle\int x\sin(2x)\,dx = -\frac{x\cos(2x)}{2}+\int\frac{\cos(2x)}{2}\,dx = -\frac{x\cos(2x)}{2}+\frac{\sin(2x)}{4}+C$. ✓ -
$x^2\sin x + 2x\cos x - 2\sin x + C$
$u=x^2$, $v=\sin x$ $\Rightarrow$ $x^2\sin x - 2\displaystyle\int x\sin x\,dx$.
For $\displaystyle\int x\sin x\,dx$: use Mar 11 style ($u=x$, $v=-\cos x$): $-x\cos x+\sin x$.
Total: $x^2\sin x - 2(-x\cos x + \sin x) = x^2\sin x + 2x\cos x - 2\sin x + C$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{e^x(\sin x - \cos x)}{2} + C$
Let $I = \displaystyle\int e^x\sin x\,dx$.
First parts: $u=e^x$, $dv=\sin x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $-e^x\cos x + \displaystyle\int e^x\cos x\,dx$.
Second parts: $\displaystyle\int e^x\cos x\,dx$ with $u=e^x$, $dv=\cos x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $e^x\sin x - \displaystyle\int e^x\sin x\,dx = e^x\sin x - I$.
So: $I = -e^x\cos x + e^x\sin x - I$.
$2I = e^x(\sin x - \cos x)$ $\Rightarrow$ $\boxed{I = \dfrac{e^x(\sin x-\cos x)}{2}+C}$. ✓
This trick works whenever parts leads you back to the original integral — just name it $I$ and solve! -
$x\arctan x - \dfrac{1}{2}\ln(1+x^2) + C$
$u=\arctan x$, $dv=dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}dx$, $v=x$.
$\displaystyle\int\arctan x\,dx = x\arctan x - \int\frac{x}{1+x^2}\,dx = x\arctan x - \frac{1}{2}\ln(1+x^2)+C$.
(For the last integral: substitution $w=1+x^2$, $dw=2x\,dx$.) ✓ -
$\dfrac{x^2+1}{2}\arctan x - \dfrac{x}{2} + C$
$u=\arctan x$, $dv=x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}dx$, $v=\dfrac{x^2}{2}$.
$\displaystyle\int x\arctan x\,dx = \frac{x^2}{2}\arctan x - \frac{1}{2}\int\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\,dx$.
Split: $\dfrac{x^2}{1+x^2}=1-\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}$, so $\displaystyle\int\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}dx = x - \arctan x$.
Total: $\dfrac{x^2}{2}\arctan x - \dfrac{1}{2}(x-\arctan x) = \dfrac{x^2+1}{2}\arctan x - \dfrac{x}{2}+C$. ✓
Part 5 — Volumes: Choose Your Weapon
For each problem, solve both ways and verify they agree. Notice how the choice of method matters much more when the function involves $e^x$ or $\ln x$!
Problem 1.
The region bounded by $y = e^x$, $x = 0$, $x = 1$, and $y = 0$ is rotated around the $x$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 1
🔍 Disc is dramatically easier — one clean integral. Shell requires splitting into two regions and integration by parts inside! When the rotation axis matches the integration variable ($x$-axis, integrate in $x$), disc/washer almost always wins.
Problem 2.
The region bounded by $y = \ln x$, $x = e$, and $y = 0$ is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 2
🔍 Shell required integration by parts, but was still one integral. Washer was clean once you correctly identified $R=e$ (constant outer wall from $x=e$) and $r=e^y$ (inner from the curve). Notice the outer radius is the boundary line $x=e$, not the curve!
Problem 3.
The region bounded by $y = x$ and $y = x^3$ (they meet at $(0,0)$ and $(1,1)$ for $x\geq 0$) is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 3
🔍 Shell wins cleanly again — one polynomial integral, no inversion needed. Washer required recognising which curve is outer ($y=x^3$ inverts to $x=y^{1/3}$, which is larger) and computing a fractional-power integral. Both work, but shell is the elegant choice here.
March 11, 2026
Part 1 — Limits: Two Roads, Same Destination
Each limit can be solved two ways — find both!
- Method A – L’Hôpital’s rule (when you get $\frac{0}{0}$ or $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$)
- Method B – Spot it as a derivative definition
- $\displaystyle\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{(3+h)^2 - 9}{h}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{e^{2+h} - e^2}{h}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\tan x}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\tan x}{\sin x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{e^{2x} - 1}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+3x)}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{e^x - 1 - x}{x^2}$ (L'Hôpital twice; or Taylor series of $e^x$ — which is slicker?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 1} \frac{x^4 - 1}{x - 1}$ (factor; and derivative definition)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sin(3x)}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sin(3x)}{\sin(5x)}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{x^3 + 2x}{4x^3 - 1}$
▶ Answers — Part 1
-
$6$
Method B: $f'(3)$ for $f(x)=x^2$; $f'(x)=2x$, so $f'(3)=6$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; differentiate w.r.t. $h$: $\displaystyle\frac{2(3+h)}{1}\big|_{h=0}=6$. ✓ -
$e^2$
Method B: $f'(2)$ for $f(x)=e^x$; $f'(2)=e^2$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff w.r.t. $h$: $\displaystyle\frac{e^{2+h}}{1}\big|_{h=0}=e^2$. ✓ -
$1$
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=\tan x$; $f'(0)=\sec^2(0)=1$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{\sec^2 x}{1}\big|_{x=0}=1$. ✓ -
$1$
No L'Hôpital — split the fraction:
$\dfrac{\tan x}{\sin x} = \dfrac{\sin x / \cos x}{\sin x} = \dfrac{1}{\cos x}\to\dfrac{1}{1}=1$. ✓
Or: $\dfrac{\tan x}{\sin x}=\dfrac{\tan x}{x}\cdot\dfrac{x}{\sin x}\to 1\cdot 1=1$ using #3 and Mar 10 #3. -
$2$
Let $u=2x$; as $x\to 0$, $u\to 0$, so $\displaystyle\frac{e^{2x}-1}{x}=2\cdot\frac{e^u-1}{u}\to 2\cdot 1=2$. ✓
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{2e^{2x}}{1}\big|_{x=0}=2$. ✓ -
$3$
Let $u=3x$; as $x\to 0$, $u\to 0$: $\displaystyle\frac{\ln(1+3x)}{x}=3\cdot\frac{\ln(1+u)}{u}\to 3\cdot 1=3$. ✓
(Uses the Mar 10 Part 1 #8 result: $\frac{\ln(1+u)}{u}\to 1$.) -
$\dfrac{1}{2}$
Taylor series (slicker): $e^x = 1 + x + \dfrac{x^2}{2} + \cdots$, so $e^x - 1 - x = \dfrac{x^2}{2}+\cdots$; divide by $x^2$: limit $= \dfrac{1}{2}$.
L'Hôpital twice: $\displaystyle\frac{e^x-1-x}{x^2}\xrightarrow{\text{L'H}}\frac{e^x-1}{2x}\xrightarrow{\text{L'H}}\frac{e^x}{2}\big|_{x=0}=\frac{1}{2}$. ✓ -
$4$
Method B: $f'(1)$ for $f(x)=x^4$; $f'(1)=4\cdot 1^3=4$.
Direct factor: $x^4-1=(x-1)(x^3+x^2+x+1)$; cancel $(x-1)$; plug in $x=1$: $1+1+1+1=4$. ✓ -
$3$
Let $u=3x$; $\displaystyle\frac{\sin(3x)}{x}=3\cdot\frac{\sin u}{u}\to 3\cdot 1=3$. ✓
Method A: diff: $\displaystyle\frac{3\cos(3x)}{1}\big|_{x=0}=3$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{3}{5}$
Divide top and bottom by $x$: $\displaystyle\frac{\sin(3x)/x}{\sin(5x)/x}=\frac{\sin(3x)/x}{\sin(5x)/x}\to\frac{3}{5}$ using #9 for both. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{4}$
Divide numerator and denominator by $x^3$: $\displaystyle\frac{1+2/x^2}{4-1/x^3}\to\frac{1}{4}$ as $x\to\infty$. ✓
Part 2 — Limits at Infinity & Sneaky Forms
These mix $x\to\infty$, $x\to 0^+$, and $0\cdot\infty$ forms.
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{3x^2 - x + 1}{2x^2 + 5}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \left(1 + \frac{2}{n}\right)^{\!n}$ (variation on the $e$ definition — what's the exponent?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \left(1 + \frac{1}{n}\right)^{\!3n}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^2\ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} \sqrt{x}\ln x$
▶ Answers — Part 2
-
$\dfrac{3}{2}$
Divide through by $x^2$: $\displaystyle\frac{3-1/x+1/x^2}{2+5/x^2}\to\frac{3}{2}$. ✓ -
$e^2$
$\left(1+\dfrac{2}{n}\right)^n = \left(\!\left(1+\dfrac{2}{n}\right)^{\!n/2}\right)^{\!2}\to (e)^2 = e^2$. ✓ -
$e^3$
$\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^{3n}=\left(\!\left(1+\dfrac{1}{n}\right)^n\right)^{\!3}\to e^3$. ✓ -
$0$
Write $x^2\ln x = \dfrac{\ln x}{x^{-2}}$; L'Hôpital ($\frac{-\infty}{\infty}$): $\displaystyle\frac{1/x}{-2x^{-3}}=\frac{-x^2}{2}\to 0$. ✓
Pattern: $x^p\ln x\to 0$ as $x\to 0^+$ for any $p>0$. Power always wins over $\ln$. -
$0$
Same pattern: $\sqrt{x}\ln x = x^{1/2}\ln x\to 0$ as $x\to 0^+$. ($p=\frac{1}{2}>0$.) ✓
Part 3 — Series
Converge or diverge? Give exact value when possible.
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}$ (famous result — do you remember it?)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{2^n}$ (geometric — identify $r$)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n+1}{n^2+1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2^n + 3^n}{5^n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{n}{n^2+1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n(n+2)}$ (partial fractions — telescoping!)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n^2}{2^n}$ (ratio test for convergence; exact value is a bonus!)
▶ Answers — Part 3
-
Converges $= \dfrac{\pi^2}{6}$
The Basel problem — $p$-series with $p=2>1$ (converges), and Euler proved the value is $\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}\approx 1.645$. Memorise this one! ✓ -
Converges $= \dfrac{2}{3}$
Geometric with $a=1$, $r=-\dfrac{1}{2}$; $|r|<1$ so converges. Sum $= \dfrac{1}{1-(-1/2)}=\dfrac{1}{3/2}=\dfrac{2}{3}$. ✓ -
Diverges
Limit comparison with $\dfrac{1}{n}$: $\displaystyle\frac{(n+1)/(n^2+1)}{1/n}=\frac{n(n+1)}{n^2+1}\to 1>0$. Since $\sum\frac{1}{n}$ diverges, so does this. ✓ -
Converges $= \dfrac{2}{3}+\dfrac{3}{2} = \dfrac{13}{6}$
Split: $\displaystyle\sum\frac{2^n+3^n}{5^n}=\sum\!\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)^{\!n}+\sum\!\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)^{\!n}$.
Two geometric series: $\dfrac{2/5}{1-2/5}+\dfrac{3/5}{1-3/5}=\dfrac{2}{3}+\dfrac{3}{2}=\dfrac{13}{6}$. ✓ -
Converges (value not elementary)
Alternating series test (Leibniz): $a_n=\dfrac{n}{n^2+1}$ is decreasing (check with calculus) and $a_n\to 0$. Both conditions satisfied. ✓ -
Converges $= \dfrac{3}{4}$
Partial fractions: $\dfrac{1}{n(n+2)}=\dfrac{1}{2}\!\left(\dfrac{1}{n}-\dfrac{1}{n+2}\right)$. Telescoping — write out first few terms and watch pairs cancel. Sum $=\dfrac{1}{2}\!\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}\right)=\dfrac{3}{4}$. ✓ -
Converges $= 6$
Ratio test: $\displaystyle\frac{(n+1)^2/2^{n+1}}{n^2/2^n}=\frac{(n+1)^2}{2n^2}\to\frac{1}{2}<1$. ✓ Converges.
Exact value (bonus): Differentiate $\sum nx^{n-1}=\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}$ again, multiply by $x$: $\sum n^2 x^n = \frac{x(1+x)}{(1-x)^3}$. At $x=\frac{1}{2}$: $\frac{(1/2)(3/2)}{(1/2)^3}=6$. ✓
Part 4 — Integration by Parts
Recall the formula: $\displaystyle\int u\,dv = uv - \int v\,du$
The trick is choosing $u$ and $dv$ wisely. A helpful mnemonic for choosing $u$: LIATE — Logarithm, Inverse trig, Algebraic, Trig, Exponential. The item highest on that list makes the best $u$.
- $\displaystyle\int x e^x\,dx$ ($u=x$, $dv=e^x\,dx$)
- $\displaystyle\int x\cos x\,dx$
- $\displaystyle\int x^2 e^x\,dx$ (parts twice — or spot the pattern from #1)
- $\displaystyle\int \ln x\,dx$ (surprising: $u=\ln x$, $dv=dx$)
- $\displaystyle\int x\ln x\,dx$
▶ Answers — Part 4
-
$xe^x - e^x + C = e^x(x-1) + C$
$u=x$, $dv=e^x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=dx$, $v=e^x$.
$\displaystyle\int xe^x\,dx = xe^x - \int e^x\,dx = xe^x - e^x + C$. ✓ -
$x\sin x + \cos x + C$
$u=x$, $dv=\cos x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=dx$, $v=\sin x$.
$\displaystyle\int x\cos x\,dx = x\sin x - \int\sin x\,dx = x\sin x + \cos x + C$. ✓ -
$e^x(x^2 - 2x + 2) + C$
First parts: $u=x^2$, $v=e^x$ $\Rightarrow$ $x^2 e^x - 2\displaystyle\int xe^x\,dx$.
Apply result from #1 for the remaining integral: $-2(xe^x - e^x) = -2xe^x+2e^x$.
Total: $e^x(x^2-2x+2)+C$. ✓ -
$x\ln x - x + C$
$u=\ln x$, $dv=dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\frac{1}{x}dx$, $v=x$.
$\displaystyle\int\ln x\,dx = x\ln x - \int x\cdot\frac{1}{x}\,dx = x\ln x - x + C$. ✓
This is the "sneaky" parts — $dv=dx$ looks too simple, but it works beautifully. -
$\dfrac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \dfrac{x^2}{4} + C$
$u=\ln x$, $dv=x\,dx$ $\Rightarrow$ $du=\frac{1}{x}dx$, $v=\frac{x^2}{2}$.
$\displaystyle\int x\ln x\,dx = \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \int\frac{x^2}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{x}\,dx = \frac{x^2}{2}\ln x - \frac{x^2}{4}+C$. ✓
Part 5 — Volumes Around the $y$-Axis: Shell vs. Washer
Rotating around the $y$-axis — this is where the shell method really shines. For each problem, solve both ways and confirm they agree.
Problem 1.
The region bounded by $y = \sqrt{x}$, $x = 1$, and $y = 0$ is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 1
🔍 Shell was easier.
Problem 2.
The region bounded by $y = x^2$, $x = 2$, and $x$-axis is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 2
🔍 Shell was more natural — the region is described cleanly in $x$. Washer needed the outer boundary $x=2$ rewritten as a constant radius, and the inner boundary inverted to $x=\sqrt{y}$.
Problem 3.
The region bounded by $y = x(2-x)$ and $y = 0$ (the parabola meets the $x$-axis at $x=0$ and $x=2$) is rotated around the $\boldsymbol{y}$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 3
🔍 Shell method is dramatically easier — one clean integral. The washer method required completing the square, inverting the parabola to find both branches, then a $u$-substitution. This is the best example yet of why shell method was invented!
March 10, 2026
Part 1 — Limits: Two Roads, Same Destination
Each limit below can be solved two ways. Try both — they should give the same answer!
- Method A – L’Hôpital’s theorem (when you get $\frac{0}{0}$ or $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$)
- Method B – Recognise it as a derivative definition
- $\displaystyle\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{(2+h)^3 - 8}{h}$ (hint: what function? what point?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{h\to 0} \frac{\sqrt{4+h} - 2}{h}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sin x}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sqrt{4+x} - 2}{\sin x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sqrt{4+\sin x} - 2}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sqrt{4+\sin x} - 2}{\sin x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{e^x - 1}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+x)}{x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{1 - \cos x}{x^2}$ (L'Hôpital twice, or Taylor; and derivative definition of $\cos$ at 0)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{e^{3x} - 1}{x}$ (can you do this without L'Hôpital using #7?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 2} \frac{x^3 - 8}{x - 2}$ (factor directly; and derivative definition)
▶ Answers — Part 1
-
$12$
Method B (derivative): This is $f'(2)$ for $f(x)=x^3$, so $f'(2)=3\cdot 2^2=12$.
Method A (L'Hôpital): $\frac{0}{0}$ form; diff top/bottom w.r.t. $h$: $\displaystyle\frac{3(2+h)^2}{1}\big|_{h=0} = 12$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{4}$
Method B: $f'(4)$ for $f(x)=\sqrt{x}$; $f'(x)=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}$, so $f'(4)=\frac{1}{4}$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{1/(2\sqrt{4+h})}{1}\big|_{h=0}=\frac{1}{4}$. ✓ -
$1$
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=\sin x$; $f'(0)=\cos 0=1$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{\cos x}{1}\big|_{x=0}=1$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{4}$
No L'Hôpital needed — just multiply and divide by $x$:
$\dfrac{\sqrt{4+x}-2}{\sin x} = \dfrac{\sqrt{4+x}-2}{x}\cdot\dfrac{x}{\sin x}$
First factor $\to \dfrac{1}{4}$ by #2; second factor $\to 1$ because $\dfrac{\sin x}{x}\to 1$ by #3.
Product $= \dfrac{1}{4}\cdot 1 = \dfrac{1}{4}$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{4}$
No L'Hôpital — substitute and split:
$\dfrac{\sqrt{4+\sin x}-2}{x} = \dfrac{\sqrt{4+\sin x}-2}{\sin x}\cdot\dfrac{\sin x}{x}$
For the first factor, let $u = \sin x$; as $x\to 0$, $u\to 0$, so $\dfrac{\sqrt{4+u}-2}{u}\to\dfrac{1}{4}$ by #2.
Second factor $\to 1$ by #3. Product $= \dfrac{1}{4}\cdot 1 = \dfrac{1}{4}$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{4}$
No L'Hôpital — direct substitution, reuses only #2:
Let $u = \sin x$; as $x\to 0$, $u\to 0$, so
$\dfrac{\sqrt{4+\sin x}-2}{\sin x} = \dfrac{\sqrt{4+u}-2}{u}\to\dfrac{1}{4}$ directly by #2.
No need for #3 this time! The $\sin x$ cancels itself top and bottom. ✓ -
$1$
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=e^x$; $f'(0)=e^0=1$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{e^x}{1}\big|_{x=0}=1$. ✓ -
$1$
Method B: $f'(0)$ for $f(x)=\ln(1+x)$; $f'(x)=\frac{1}{1+x}$, so $f'(0)=1$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{1/(1+x)}{1}\big|_{x=0}=1$. ✓ -
$\dfrac{1}{2}$
Method B: $-f''(0)/2!$ for $\cos x$... actually: rewrite as $\displaystyle\frac{1-\cos x}{x^2}$. Note $1-\cos x = 2\sin^2(x/2)$, so $\displaystyle\frac{2\sin^2(x/2)}{x^2}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\sin(x/2)}{x/2}\right)^2\to\frac{1}{2}$.
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$ twice: $\displaystyle\frac{\sin x}{2x}\big|_{x=0}$ → still $\frac{0}{0}$ → $\displaystyle\frac{\cos x}{2}\big|_{x=0}=\frac{1}{2}$. ✓ -
$3$
Method B (slick): Let $u=3x$; as $x\to 0$, $u\to 0$, so $\displaystyle\frac{e^{3x}-1}{x}=3\cdot\frac{e^u-1}{u}\to 3\cdot 1=3$. Uses result from #7!
Method A: $\frac{0}{0}$; diff: $\displaystyle\frac{3e^{3x}}{1}\big|_{x=0}=3$. ✓ -
$12$
Method B: $f'(2)$ for $f(x)=x^3$; $f'(2)=3\cdot 4=12$. (Same as #1!)
Direct factor: $x^3-8=(x-2)(x^2+2x+4)$; cancel $(x-2)$; plug in $x=2$: $4+4+4=12$. ✓
Part 2 — Limits at Infinity
These all involve $x\to\infty$ or $n\to\infty$. One of them secretly reuses a result from Part 1 — can you spot which one?
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x\sin\dfrac{1}{x}$ (hint: try the substitution $u = \frac{1}{x}$)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{\!n}$ (this one you should just know by heart!)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(1+\frac{3}{n}\right)^{\!2n}$ (variation on #2 — what changes?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{x^{100}}{e^x}$ (L'Hôpital 100 times? or is there a slicker way?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\sqrt{x+1} - \sqrt{x}\right)$ (try multiplying by the conjugate)
▶ Answers — Part 2
-
$1$
Let $u=\dfrac{1}{x}$; as $x\to\infty$, $u\to 0^+$, so $x\sin\dfrac{1}{x} = \dfrac{\sin u}{u} \to 1$ by Part 1 #3! ✓
That's the hidden connection — the same $\displaystyle\frac{\sin\theta}{\theta}\to 1$ just wearing a disguise. -
$e \approx 2.718\ldots$
This is the definition of $e$. Memorise it — it appears everywhere.
More generally: $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\!\left(1+\frac{a}{n}\right)^n = \lim_{n\to\infty}\!\left(\left(1+\frac{a}{n}\right)^{\frac{n}{a}}\right)^{a} = e^a$. -
$e^6$
Rewrite the exponent: $\left(1+\dfrac{3}{n}\right)^{2n} = \left(\left(1+\dfrac{3}{n}\right)^{\frac{n}{3}}\right)^6$.
Inner limit $\to e$ by the formula from #2 with $a=1$; $(e)^6 = e^6$. -
$0$
Exponential always beats any polynomial at $\infty$ — no matter how large the power.
Formally: L'Hôpital applied 100 times gives $\dfrac{100!}{e^x}\to 0$.
Slicker: $e^x > \dfrac{x^{101}}{101!}$ for all large $x$ (from the Taylor series), so $\dfrac{x^{100}}{e^x} < \dfrac{101!}{x} \to 0$. -
$0$
Multiply by the conjugate $\dfrac{\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{x}}$:
$\sqrt{x+1}-\sqrt{x} = \dfrac{(x+1)-x}{\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{x}} = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{x}} \to \dfrac{1}{\infty} = 0$. ✓
Part 3 — Series
Converge or diverge? Give exact value when possible.
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n(n+1)}$ (hint: partial fractions!)
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{2^n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n \ln n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{3^n}{n!}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{n^2+1}{n^3+1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{3/2}}$
▶ Answers — Part 3
-
Converges $= 1$
Partial fractions: $\displaystyle\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}$. Telescoping sum: all middle terms cancel, leaving $\displaystyle 1 - \lim_{N\to\infty}\frac{1}{N+1} = 1$. -
Converges $= 2$
Ratio test: $\displaystyle\frac{(n+1)/2^{n+1}}{n/2^n}=\frac{n+1}{2n}\to\frac{1}{2}<1$. Value: differentiate the geometric series $\displaystyle\sum x^n = \frac{1}{1-x}$ to get $\displaystyle\sum nx^{n-1}=\frac{1}{(1-x)^2}$; multiply by $x$: $\displaystyle\sum nx^n = \frac{x}{(1-x)^2}$; at $\displaystyle x=\frac{1}{2}$: $\displaystyle\frac{1/2}{1/4}=2$. -
Converges (value not elementary)
Leibniz alternating series test: $\displaystyle\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}$ is decreasing and $\to 0$. ✓ (Value $\approx -0.6049$, related to Dirichlet eta function.) -
Diverges ($\infty$)
Integral test: $\displaystyle\int_2^\infty \frac{dx}{x\ln x} = \ln(\ln x)\Big|_2^\infty = \infty$. (Or: $p$-series-like with $p=1$ — just barely diverges!) -
Converges $= e^3 - 1 \approx 19.09$
Ratio test: $\displaystyle\frac{3^{n+1}/(n+1)!}{3^n/n!}=\frac{3}{n+1}\to 0 < 1$. Value: $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{3^n}{n!}=e^3$, minus the $n=0$ term ($=1$): answer $= e^3-1$. -
Diverges ($\infty$)
Limit comparison with $\displaystyle\frac{1}{n}$: $\displaystyle\frac{(n^2+1)/(n^3+1)}{1/n}=\frac{n(n^2+1)}{n^3+1}\to 1>0$. Since $\sum\dfrac{1}{n}$ diverges, so does this. -
Converges
$p$-series with $p=\dfrac{3}{2}>1$. (Value $= \zeta(3/2)\approx 2.612$, no simple closed form.)
Part 4 — FTC with a Twist
These use FTC Part 1 + chain rule — the upper limit is a function of $x$, not just $x$ itself!
\[\frac{d}{dx}\int_a^{g(x)} f(t)\,dt = f(g(x))\cdot g'(x)\]- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x^2} e^{-t^2}\, dt$
- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_x^{x^2} \sin(t^2)\, dt$ (both limits move! split it into two integrals first)
▶ Answers — Part 4
-
$2x\,e^{-x^4}$
Chain rule: $f(g(x))\cdot g'(x)$ where $f(t)=e^{-t^2}$ and $g(x)=x^2$.
$= e^{-(x^2)^2}\cdot 2x = 2x\,e^{-x^4}$. -
$2x\sin(x^4) - \sin(x^2)$
Split: $\displaystyle\int_x^{x^2} = \int_0^{x^2} - \int_0^{x}$.
Differentiate each: $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x^2}\sin(t^2)\,dt = \sin(x^4)\cdot 2x$; $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx}\int_0^{x}\sin(t^2)\,dt = \sin(x^2)\cdot 1$.
Answer: $\displaystyle 2x\sin(x^4) - \sin(x^2)$.
Part 5 — Volumes of Revolution: Two Methods Every Time
For each problem, compute the volume both ways — disc/washer method and shell method. Verify they agree, then reflect: which method felt easier, and why?
Problem 1.
The region bounded by $y = x^2$, $x = 0$, $x = 2$, and $y = 0$ is rotated around the $x$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 1
🔍 Disc was easier here — one clean integral vs a fractional power. Shell required inverting $y=x^2$ to $x=\sqrt{y}$ and thinking in $y$.
Problem 2.
The region bounded by $y = \sqrt{x}$ and $y = x$ (they meet at $(0,0)$ and $(1,1)$) is rotated around the $x$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 2
🔍 Both methods are equally clean here! Washer thinks in $x$ (natural for rotation around $x$-axis); shell thinks in $y$ and requires rewriting $y=\sqrt{x}\Rightarrow x=y^2$ and $y=x\Rightarrow x=y$.
Problem 3.
The region bounded by $y = x^2$ and $y = 2x$ (they meet at $(0,0)$ and $(2,4)$) is rotated around the $y$-axis.
▶ Solution — Problem 3
🔍 Shell was much easier here — rotating around the $y$-axis with functions given in $x$ is exactly what shell method is designed for. Washer forced us to invert both curves and integrate in $y$.
March 9, 2026
Part 1 — Limits
Find the value of each limit (write $\infty$, $-\infty$, or DNE when appropriate).
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{x^2 - 3x}{-3x^2 + 4x + 1}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{x^2 - 3x}{-3x^2 + 4x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \dfrac{x^2 - 3x}{-3x^2 + 4x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x\ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^2 \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^{10} \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^{0.01} \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^{-1} \ln x$ (careful — which dominates?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^{-0.01} \ln x$ (subtle!)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x\ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x^2 \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{10} \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{0.01} \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{-1} \ln x$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{-0.01} \ln x$ (compare growth rates carefully)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{\ln(100 + e^{3x}) + 10^{10^{10}}}{5x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty} \dfrac{\ln(100 + e^{3x}) - \ln 101}{5x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \dfrac{\ln(100 + e^{3x}) - \ln 101}{5x}$
- $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to 0} \dfrac{\ln(100 + e^{3x})}{5x}$ (does this even exist?)
- $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} (-1)^n$
▶ Answers — Part 1
- $-\dfrac{1}{3}$ — divide top and bottom by $x^2$; only leading coefficients survive
- $-\dfrac{1}{3}$ — same; the $+1$ in the denominator is irrelevant at $\infty$
- $-\dfrac{3}{4}$ — factor out $x$: $\frac{x(x-3)}{x(-3x+4)}$, cancel $x$, plug in $x=0$: $\frac{0-3}{0+4} = -\frac{3}{4}$
- $0$ — rewrite as $\frac{\ln x}{x^{-1}}$; L'Hôpital: $\frac{1/x}{-x^{-2}} = -x \to 0$
- $0$ — $x^2$ kills $\ln x$ even faster; for any $p>0$: $\lim_{x\to 0^+} x^p\ln x = 0$
- $0$ — same rule, $p=10$
- $0$ — same rule, $p=0.01>0$; polynomial always beats log
- $-\infty$ — $\frac{\ln x}{x} \xrightarrow{x\to 0^+} \frac{-\infty}{0^+} = -\infty$ (denominator $\to 0^+$ makes it blow up)
- $-\infty$ — $p=-0.01<0$ so $x^{-0.01}\to +\infty$ while $\ln x\to -\infty$; product $\to -\infty$
- $\infty$ — both $x\to\infty$ and $\ln x\to\infty$; no competition
- $\infty$
- $\infty$
- $\infty$ — even a tiny positive power $\times \ln x \to \infty$
- $0$ — $\frac{\ln x}{x}\to 0$; polynomial growth crushes logarithm at $\infty$
- $0$ — $\frac{\ln x}{x^{0.01}}\to 0$; any polynomial power beats $\ln x$ at $\infty$
- $\dfrac{3}{5}$ — the constant $10^{10^{10}}$ is irrelevant at $\infty$; $\ln(100+e^{3x})\approx 3x$ for large $x$, so limit $=\frac{3x}{5x}=\frac{3}{5}$
- $\dfrac{3}{5}$ — $-\ln 101$ is a fixed constant, irrelevant at $\infty$; same reasoning
- $\dfrac{3}{505}$ — at $x=0$: $\frac{0}{0}$ form; L'Hôpital: $\dfrac{3e^{3x}/(100+e^{3x})}{5}\Big|_{x=0} = \dfrac{3/101}{5} = \dfrac{3}{505}$
- DNE — numerator $\to\ln 101\neq 0$ while denominator $\to 0$; from the right $\to+\infty$, from the left $\to-\infty$
- DNE — $(-1)^n$ oscillates between $+1$ and $-1$ forever; no single value
Part 2 — Series
– Converge or Diverge?
For each series – does it converge or diverge? If it converges, give the exact value if you can. If it diverges, write $\infty$, $-\infty$, or “oscillates.”
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^2}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^4}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{(-1)^{n}}{2n+1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^n$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n!}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} 2^{n-1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (0.5)^{n-1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (0.25)^{n-1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{3}\right)^{n-1}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{n!}{e^n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{e^n}{n!}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{n^2}{e^n}$
- $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{n^{1000}}{e^n}$
▶ Answers — Part 2
- Diverges ($\infty$) — the harmonic series; famously diverges (grows like $\ln n$)
- Converges $= \dfrac{\pi^2}{6} \approx 1.6449$ — Basel problem (Euler, 1734); $p$-series with $p=2>1$
- Converges $= \dfrac{\pi^4}{90} \approx 1.0823$ — $p$-series with $p=4>1$
- Converges $= \ln 2 \approx 0.6931$ — alternating harmonic series (Leibniz test)
- Converges $= \dfrac{\pi}{4} \approx 0.7854$ — Gregory–Leibniz formula for $\pi$! (from $\arctan 1 = \pi/4$)
- Diverges (oscillates) — partial sums alternate $-1, 0, -1, 0, \ldots$; no limit
- Converges $= e-1 \approx 1.7183$ — Taylor series for $e^x$ at $x=1$, minus the $n=0$ term
- Diverges ($\infty$) — geometric with ratio $r=2>1$
- Converges $= 2$ — geometric: $\dfrac{1}{1-0.5} = 2$
- Converges $= \dfrac{4}{3}$ — geometric: $\dfrac{1}{1-0.25} = \dfrac{4}{3}$
- Converges $= \dfrac{3}{2}$ — geometric: $\dfrac{1}{1-\frac{1}{3}} = \dfrac{3}{2}$
- Diverges ($\infty$) — ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)!}{e^{n+1}}\cdot\dfrac{e^n}{n!} = \dfrac{n+1}{e}\to\infty$
- Converges $= e^e - 1 \approx 14.77$ — ratio test: $\dfrac{e}{n+1}\to 0<1$; relates to Taylor expansion of $e^e$
- Converges — ratio test: $\dfrac{(n+1)^2}{n^2 \cdot e}\to\dfrac{1}{e}<1$
- Converges — ratio test: limit $\to\dfrac{1}{e}<1$; exponential always beats any polynomial power
Part 3 — FTC, Part 1
Find each derivative. Hint – you do NOT need to evaluate the integral!
- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx} \int_{0}^{x} \sqrt{\sin^4 t + 234}\; dt$
- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx} \int_{-1000}^{x} \sqrt{\sin^4 t + 234}\; dt$
- $\displaystyle\frac{d}{dx} \int_{10^{10}}^{x} \sqrt{\sin^4 t + 234}\; dt$
👀 Look carefully at all three answers. What do you notice about the lower limit?
▶ Answers — Part 3
The lower limit $a$ — whether $0$, $-1000$, or $10^{10}$ — only contributes a fixed constant to the antiderivative, and constants vanish under differentiation. FTC Part 1: $\;\dfrac{d}{dx}\displaystyle\int_a^x f(t)\,dt = f(x)\;$ for any constant $a$.
Also: inside the integral the dummy variable is $t$, not $x$. Writing $\sqrt{\sin^4 x+234}$ inside the integral while differentiating with respect to $x$ would be a sign confusion — that's exactly why the dummy variable matters!